A 50-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a one-year history of aching sensation of the lower extremities and brawny edema of the ankles. The symptoms worsen after she stands or walks for prolonged periods of time. Dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are 3+ bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Ankle-brachial indices
Arteriography
Duplex ultrasonography
Exercise program
Measurement of compartment pressures