A 9-year-old boy is evaluated for ventricular systolic overload. ECG shows left-axis deviation and a left bundle branch block. Autoimmune and malignancy screening are negative. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s condition?
Aortic coarctation
Left atrial dilatation
Libman-Sacks endocarditis
Mitral stenosis
Right ventricular hypertrophy
