A 24-year-old man comes to the physician for a 2-day history of left flank pain that radiates to the groin. He has a 4-year history of Crohn disease. Current medications are mesalamine and a multivitamin. Vitals are normal. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s acute presentation?
Excessive intake of vitamin D and calcium
Hyperparathyroidism (primary)
Hyperparathyroidism (secondary)
Increased absorption of oxalate
Increased uric acid production
