A 24-year-old woman comes to the physician for a 3-day history of bilateral knee and elbow pain that she describes as very achy and migrating, and a 2-day history of a lesion on her right index finger. Vitals are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic therapy for this patient, as well as the theoretical mechanism of resistance to this agent?
DNA synthesis inhibitor; altered eukaryotic thymidine kinase
DNA synthesis inhibitor; altered viral thymidine kinase
DNA synthesis inhibitor; direct inhibition of acyclovir triphosphate
Inhibition of cell wall synthesis; production of extended-spectrum beta-lactamase
RNA synthesis inhibitor; altered viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
