A 67-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance visit. He has a history of well-controlled type II diabetes and hypertension. He’s a non-smoker. He received an influenza vaccine last fall and the Tdap booster 6 years ago. Physical exam and labs are unremarkable. Vitals are normal. The physician recommends vaccination as part of age-based preventive care. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Influenza vaccine
B) PCV13 alone
C) PCV15 followed by PCV20 in 1 year
D) PCV20 or 21 alone
E) PPSV23 alone
