A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician for a 3-day history of increasingly worse vaginal discharge and discomfort. She has recently been sexually active with a new partner. Vitals are: temperature 99 F, HR 100, RR 20, BP 120/80. Laboratory results are pending. Physical examination shows left adnexal tenderness and a yellow-green vaginal discharge. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Admit to hospital and give IV antibiotics
B) Doxycycline (oral) + ceftriaxone (intramuscular)
C) Doxycyline (oral) + azithromycin (oral) + ceftriaxone (intramuscular)
D) Metronidazole (oral) for patient and partner
E) Metronidazole (oral) for patient only
