A 40-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up appointment. She has a long history of rheumatoid arthritis managed with ibuprofen, prednisone, and methotrexate. Blood pressure is 145/90. Which of the following is the following is the most salient explanation for this patient’s hypertension?
A) Increased α-adrenergic receptor expression
B) Increased β-adrenergic receptor expression
C) Increased catecholamine release
D) Increased myocardial contractility
E) Poor glycemic control
