A 61-year-old man comes to the GP because of a 2-month history of worsening rash on the feet. He says it is not painful or itchy. Vitals are stable and within normal limits. The patient is currently enrolled in the clinic’s methadone program. A photograph of the patient’s left foot is shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic therapy for this patient?
Ciprofloxacin
Doxorubicin
Gentamicin
Permethrin
Prednisone
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Cut-to-the-chase Answer (0:35):
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HY USMLE Answer (7:41):
