A 34-year-old woman presents to the GP with a 3-day history of an itchy, painful finger (shown in the image below). She is prescribed an oral medication. If the prescribed agent to treat this condition is ineffective, which of the following molecular mechanisms would best explain this finding?
Altered efflux/influx
Altered penicillin-binding protein
Altered thymidine kinase
Beta-lactamase production
Conjugation of functional groups
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Cut-to-the-chase Answer (0:38):
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HY USMLE Answer (6:49):
