A 71-year-old man presents to the physician for a 2-day history of fever. He has no past medical history. Temperature is 101 F. Serum creatinine is 2.2 mg/dL. Digital rectal exam reveals an exquisitely tender prostate. There is no costovertebral angle tenderness. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s creatinine?
Diffuse cortical necrosis
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Papillary necrosis
Reflux
Tubular hydrostatic pressure
