A 64-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He has a 5-year history of congestive heart failure managed with lisinopril, metoprolol, and furosemide. Physical examination shows peripheral edema above the level of the knees bilaterally. There are mild wheezes auscultated on the chest bilaterally. An agent with which of the following mechanisms of action is the most appropriate next step in management?
Decreases aquaporin insertion
Increases guanylyl cylcase activity
Inhibition of arteriolar calcium channels
Inhibition of nodal calcium channels
Inhibition of steroid receptors
