A 52-year-old man presents to the physician for a 5-month history of worsening, non-pruritic rash on his legs and torso. His medications include simvastatin and methadone. He is negative for HIV and hepatitis C. Biopsy of the rash shows aggregates of T-lymphocytes in the epidermis. A photograph of the patient’s legs and blood smear are shown.
Which of the following best represents the etiology of this condition?
Autoimmune
DNA virus; enveloped
DNA virus; naked
Gram-negative coccus
Gram-negative rod
Gram-positive coccus
Gram-positive rod
RNA virus; enveloped
RNA virus; naked
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Cut-to-the-chase Answer (0:27):
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HY USMLE Answer (6:00):
