A 12-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of a 1-week history of hip pain and a limp. There is no erythema, swelling, or pain on palpation. Musculoskeletal and trauma history are unremarkable. He is at the 50th percentile for height and 90th percentile for weight. An x-ray is shown.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?
Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
Avascular necrosis of the proximal femur
Disruption of the femoral head epiphyseal plate
Inflammation of the trochanteric bursa
Poorly developed acetabulum
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Cut-to-the-chase Answer (0:40):
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HY USMLE Answer (5:40):
