A 71-year-old male presents to the GP for a two-day history of bright red blood in his stool. There is no pain. He has a 28-year-history of type II diabetes mellitus and long-standing hypertension managed with lisinopril. He experiences occasional pressure and discomfort in his upper legs that is relieved with rest. He had coronary artery bypass grafting performed 5 years ago. Vitals are: temperature 98.6 F, HR 72, RR 16, BP 150/90. Hemoglobin is 14 g/dL. HbA1c is 10.5%. A colonoscopy one year ago showed no abnormalities. Auscultation of the chest reveals no murmurs. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?
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Cut-to-the-chase Answer (0:25):
HY USMLE Answer (7:56):