A previously healthy 12-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of right knee and thigh pain for 2 months. He has no history of trauma. The pain is worsened with activity. Ibuprofen provides minimal relief. There is no family history of musculoskeletal or autoimmune diseases. He walks with an antalgic gait. BMI is 23. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?
Acute inflammation of synovial lining
Decreased blood flow in femoral head
Displacement of epiphysis of femoral head
Failure of mineralization of osteoid
Poorly developed acetabulum
