A 72-year-old man comes to the physician for a 12-hour history of increasingly severe lower abdominal pain. Physical examination shows a tender suprapubic mass. Vitals are normal. Urinalysis is 1+ for bacteria. Which of the following pharmacologic agents is most likely responsible for this patient’s acute presentation?
Bethanechol
Chlorpheniramine
Fexofenadine
Finasteride
Nifedipine
Verapamil
