An 83-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. Laboratory studies show a bleeding time of 7 minutes, partial thromboplastin time of 36 seconds, and prothrombin time of 13 seconds. His past medical history is otherwise unremarkable. He does not take any medications. His right wrist is shown.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s findings?
A) Antibodies against GpIIb/IIIa
B) Acquired Factor VIII deficiency
C) Cryoglobulinemia
D) Leukocytoclastic vasculitis
E) Solar elastosis
