A 12-year-old girl is brought to the physician for a follow-up appointment. She has had no recent illnesses. Vitals are normal. Her had a history of “anemia” that was treated with splenectomy in early adulthood. A blood smear is shown.
If left untreated, this patient is at greatest risk for developing which of the following?
A) Cholelithiasis
B) Coombs test positivity
C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
E) Normal ferritin with decreased serum iron
