A 45-year-old woman is evaluated in hospital. She has a history of HIV managed with HAART therapy and TMP/SMX. Her CD4 count is 87/μL.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s presentation?
A) Acute CNS infection
B) Hyperproliferation of B cells
C) Liquefaction
D) Reactivation of latent infection
E) T cell-mediated immune response
