A 61-year-old African-American woman is evaluated in hospital for severe left hip pain. She has a longstanding history of SLE managed with ibuprofen, acetaminophen, and prednisone. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s presentation?
A) Acute sickle crisis
B) Adipocyte hypertrophy
C) Legg-Calve-Perthes
D) Osteoporosis
E) Pseudofracture
