A 42-year-old man with history of schizophrenia is brought to the ED 4 days after starting a new antipsychotic medication. He’s had progressive confusion, high fever, and severe generalized muscle stiffness during this time. Serum creatine kinase activity is elevated. Following administration of bromocriptine, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
A) Agonism of dopaminergic receptors
B) Agonism of ryanodine receptors
C) Blockade of sarcoplasmic calcium release
D) Inhibition of sarco/endoplasmic reticulum calcium ATPase
E) Intravenous calcium gluconate
