HY USMLE Q #621 – MSK/Anatomy

A 13-year-old boy is brought to the physician for a 2-month history of left thigh and knee pain. There is no history of trauma. Pain is exacerbated with activity and mitigated with rest. He walks with an antalgic gait. BMI is 20. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?

Apophysitis
Attenuated blood flow
Displacement of epiphysis
Failure of osteoid mineralization
Poorly developed acetabulum