A 12-year-old boy is brought to the physician for a 2-week history of left hip pain and an antalgic gait. He is at the 50th percentile for height and 97th percentile for weight. Vitals are within normal limits. He has had no recent infections. An x-ray is shown. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s presentation?
Acute inflammatory reaction of synovial lining of the hip joint
Avascular necrosis
Bacterial infection with gram-positive cocci in clusters
Disruption of epiphyseal plate
Poorly developed acetabulum
