A 52-year-old woman comes to the physician for a 2-month history of increasingly severe right hip pain. There is no history of trauma. She has been receiving hemodialysis for 5 years because of polycystic kidney disease. She has an antalgic gait. X-ray shows a pseudofracture of the femoral neck. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient’s presentation?
Crystalline arthropathy
Deficient mineralization of osteoid
Diminution of blood flow
Poorly developed acetabulum
Uremic femoral necrolysis
