A 46-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of a non-itchy body rash. Physical examination shows a maculopapular rash difuse across the arms and trunk. Vitals are normal. Urinalysis shows 1+ protein, 1+ blood, 50 WBCs/hpf, and no bacteria. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s findings?
Acyclovir
Cephalexin
Dapsone
Gentamicin
Gold salts
