A 60-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 5-month history of periumbilical pain occurring 1-2 hours after eating. She has had a 20-pound weight loss during this time. She has a 4-year history of hypertension and intermittent claudication. Current medications are lisinopril, metoprolol, atorvastatin, and aspirin. BMI is 19. Femoral pulses are palpable bilaterally. Popliteal and dorsalis pedis pulses are reduced bilaterally. The stool is negative for occult blood. Which of the following is the most appropriate next best step in diagnosis?
Arteriography
Colonoscopy
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
Endoscopy
HIDA scan
