A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department for a 3-day history of severe left flank pain. She has a history of severe inflammatory bowel disease managed with multiple medications. She works as a fitness coach and takes vitamin and herbal supplements. Vitals are within normal limits. A non-contrast CT of the abdomen confirms the acute diagnosis. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s acute presentation?
Excessive consumption of calcium and vitamin D
Jimson weed
Increased absorption of oxalate
Negatively birefringent crystalline deposits
Vitamin intake
